ok here it is...say we have 3 sets of 100 random roulette spins then we get every set of 100 spins and divide it in smaller sets of 10 numbers,then we mix them up and build up new 3 sets of 100 numbers. where does not matter which set of 10 belongs to what set of 100 numbers..so having our new 3sets of 100 numbers question is...are new 3 sets of 100 numbers also random roulette samples??? thank you
p.s i hope Bayes look at it :question: :question:
Providing you don't mix them up with prejudice then yes, I would say they are random.
thanks Skakus no prejudice....but can we assume that they can be mixed in such way say to make you lose and still as hole bunch of 100 they are still random..thanks
Quote from: maestro on Jan 11, 03:26 PM 2012:question: :question:
Have you got the answer yet.
Funny you say groups of 10, what happens in 10 spins ?/10
i dont remember but you know yourself in 10 spins you either get repeat or not...