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Roulette-focused => General Discussion => Topic started by: Scarface on Jul 09, 11:16 AM 2018

Title: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 09, 11:16 AM 2018
Fallacy - faulty reasoning;  misleading or unsound argument.  A failure in reasoning that leaves an argument invalid

We've all seen it here.  A winner will post their charts showing their winnings, and the naysayers come in to dismiss it.  They will say it was luck, or not enough spins.  100 spins is not enough!  500 spins is not enough!  Test with a relevant number of spins!  Your system will fail if simulated for 1 millions spins!

The simulation argument is a fallacy for several reasons.  The most obvious one is that no one will play continuously for 1 million spins.  You can take your profits at 30, 100, or 200 spins.  Our sessions may not all last the same amout of time.  When we choose to end a session is up to the player.

On the Turbo thread, some say that you will never encounter 37 spins in which there is no repeater.  This may be true, but it is not guaranteed.  Some commented that if you tested this for millions of spins, you will at some point see this happen.  While some may not see this in a lifetime, it is still possible.  But I think everyone can agree that it is a very rare event.  But here's the problem with the simulation argument.  A simulation will show that in millions of spins, I will eventually encounter that variance from hell that will wipe out my entire bankroll....but this is not true.  Your simulation ASSUMES I will continue to keep playing into this negative abyss until all my money is wiped out.  However, I bring 20% of my bankroll to the casino.  I know not all sessions are winning sessions.  If I encountered this rare event, the most I lose is 20% of total bankroll.  Your simulation will show far more losses than I actually got.  So, what are the odds that I see something so rare 5 times in a row that it would wipe it all out?  Probably similar to the odds of hitting the lottery 5 times in a row.

I played the stock market awhile, and looking back it really is like roulette in many ways.  When you buy and sell stock you have to pay a broker commision.  Its a small cost to play, which I think is alot like the house edge in roulette.  I did very well in a 1 year span, making several times my initial investment.  I made 100s of trades that year, and stayed in the market the whole time.  All trades were not always the same amount of money...never put all my eggs in one basket.  Not all trades were the same as far as how long I held the position....some trades may have lasted as short as an hour, while most lasted several days.  Some I even kept for several weeks.  This too is similar to roulette, since many of my roulettte sessions difffered in length of play.  I used careful money management while trading, using stop loss to limit losses. 

So whats stock trading have to do with simulations?  I made several times my investment that year, while the market was in a mild recession.  If I simply bought and held I would have surely lost money.....the market was down nearly 20% ytd.  If you were to look at a year to date stock market chart, you would see the end result as a loss.  This is similar to how people here will look at a simulation of 1 million spins.  There is your fallacy.  The fallacy lies in only looking at a chart`s end result.  The fallacy also lies in assuming a player will get the exact same loss as the simulation shows, using no money management or stop loss, and play until bankroll is wiped out.


Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Wally Gator on Jul 09, 12:01 PM 2018
It's all a fallacy, right?  What if we added in the possibility that you are playing a biased wheel and win often and big.  One night, someone was tracking you instead of the wheel, then follows you home and robs you.  Can we really put any number of variables in to determine probability from an equation that is completely random?  So, when I hear the million spin argument, it completely misses the waitress who spilled a drink on you just as you were attempting to lay down big on that biased wheel.  Did the drink spill just on you or across the table?  Did they close the table for cleanup?  Change dealers?  It also misses the RNG machine that just shit the bed as you had 25 down on your 1/5/25 prog.  Add in any other random event you like to the mix.  There are millions of possibilities.

People believe what they will.  A few years back I thought I had the HG.  It lasted for over 3 years and I was able to pay 2 of my kids student loans off (over$200K combined).  Still have another one to go.   I was riding high.  It crashed and crashed big.  But, the loans were paid off.  I stopped playing for a few years.  Did I win?  I don't know yet, I'm not dead.  If I never play again, which is highly unlikely, I would say yes.  So, the loss was big, but the win was bigger over the long term.  It's all risk versus reward with some serious amount of greed in there.

I've been on this board for quite a few years and it's more of a bitching session now than a friendly forum where folks openly share their ideas for what they believe is or will be successful.  My hope is that everyone wins in the long term, regardless of what way they play.

I don't post much, but will end with this.  You only need to prove anything to yourself.  It doesn't matter what others think or do and it only matters when you have real skin in the game.  My experience has been that simulations are great, but that's all they are, simulations.  Nothing will prepare you for the real event, as there are events that will occur that you've not encountered before and variables you'll need to take into considerations that can't possibly be addressed through simulation.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 09, 12:44 PM 2018
Wally, well said my friend.  Sounds like you had a great run!  There are many variables that simulations cannot account for.  One I think that has me helped many times is intuition.

I'm not saying running simulations are a bad thing when testing.  It's good to know what to expect.  Just saying that only looking at the very end result of 1 million spins is pointless. 
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: junscissorhands on Jul 09, 01:54 PM 2018
Wally gator, finally some real talk.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: falkor2k15 on Jul 09, 02:06 PM 2018
The permutation from hell can hit you any time. Doesn't matter how much time or how many spins you delay between sessions - your luck will run out. Therefore, simulating 1 mill spins is perfect to find out if your system is a winner. To be a winner you need edge that is at least the % of the house advantage; in the long run you would then be guaranteed to be in profit. If you don't have that edge then hiding in-between sessions is not going to help. Either that or you need some way to "recover" and turn a losing session into a winning session before the next permutation from hell comes. However, so far all attempts at avoiding variance or trying to "dodge" it somehow, has failed in my attempts by the hundreds.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: DoctorSudoku on Jul 09, 05:52 PM 2018
Quote from: Wally Gator on Jul 09, 12:01 PM 2018

A few years back I thought I had the HG.  It lasted for over 3 years and I was able to pay 2 of my kids student loans off (over$200K combined). Still have another one to go.   I was riding high.  It crashed and crashed big.  But, the loans were paid off. 

Hi,
I vaguely remember that you had alluded to finding a consistently winning betting method on either this or another forum a few years ago. I am assuming that this is the method that you are referring to above.

Can you reveal if it was at baccarat or at roulette?

If it is too personal a question, then of course you don't have to reveal the answer. No problem.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 09, 06:19 PM 2018
Quote from: falkor2k15 on Jul 09, 02:06 PM 2018
The permutation from hell can hit you any time.

I agree.  No doubt if you simulate long enough you will find a loser eventually.  But if you find what you're looking for, a bet that would last for 1 million spins, would you play it like the simulation? Maybe, you would have to use a progression from 1 unit to thousands!  Would you actually play like this?  Maybe a simulation of 1 billion spins will even show that to be a loser.

My stock market example shows a loss if you look at a year to date chart, but I had gains.  If you add up all my roulette sessions over the years, I'm sure there is a significant enough spins that the math guys would say I should be at a loss...but I'm ahead.  Not claiming to be a millionaire, far from it.  But I'm definitely in the plus, which is pretty awesome considering I was so naive those first few years....chasing losses, huge negative progressions.

I can't point to one single reason why.  There are things out of your control, like a negative variance from hell.  Nothing you can do about this.  But there's also things you can control.  I never bring my entire bankroll to the casino, only a percentage of it.  I will take profits early and quit.  I will change my strategy while playing.  I will accept a loss and move on, but will not risk my whole bankroll trying to catch up.  Discipline is the hardest part of this game
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Wally Gator on Jul 09, 10:05 PM 2018
Quote from: DoctorSudoku on Jul 09, 05:52 PM 2018
Can you reveal if it was at baccarat or at roulette?

It was baccarat and was only when I attempted to transfer it to ECs in roulette that it failed.  I needed the break when it came, though, so I have no regrets.  If you are wondering if the zero played a factor, interestingly enough, it didn’t show during the sequence I played.  And, yes, that particular day I was overconfident, tired, hungry and should not have been playing.  Why don’t I just go back to playing it at bac? Probably will, but need to get in a better psychological space as I’m back at red and green chips, no orange and purple.  It was a very long few years and became nearly a J-O-B.  Not what I had originally intended and gives pause for continuing.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Bigbroben on Jul 09, 10:18 PM 2018
Quote from: Scarface on Jul 09, 11:16 AM 2018The fallacy also lies in assuming a player will get the exact same loss as the simulation shows, using no money management or stop loss, and play until bankroll is wiped out.

It is very possible to integrate stop-losses and MM in simulations.  All the ones I do are tested with different stop-losses, goals, flat bets, progressions.

Say a curve showing the results of 10000 games with 1000 spins each.  Say this represents a millions spins from some wheel some guy named John Smith was considering jumping into.
Sure you can say: He'll play this way and might end up on a winning ride for months or years, or also the opposite.  He never knows where in that curve he'll land.
Would he visit the casino for years (or click for days), observing the spins, playing virtual, until he feels the ''bottom'' is reached?

Running simulations will simply help calculate the risks and find which ways are better than others, which stop-loss or goal brings the best benefits. 

Or course a surgeon will also run an afwul lot of ''simulations'' at school before to perform a real operation on anybody.
No matter how many sims were run, the real first time will always be a different experience than on dummies.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Joe on Jul 10, 03:56 AM 2018
Hi Scarface,

I don't find your arguments against simulations very convincing. For a start, the objection that no one plays for a million spins seems irrelevant. Whether anyone actually does or not is beside the point because the purpose of a simulation (maybe not the only one, but one of the main ones) is to find out what happens in the long run. And supposing a system did actually make a good profit after a million spins; would anyone object that it was unrealistic? Probably not but then it would seem like a case of "heads I win tails you lose".  ;-).

Secondly, one person is very unlikely to play a million spins but what about 1000 people playing 1000 spins each? That would add up to a million spins and would be only a bit more difficult to simulate than one person playing 1 million spins and should give the same result, shouldn't it?

I do agree with you that things like intuition can't be simulated, but most systems are mechanical. If a system is mechanical it means that you always know what decision to make or action to take after every spin or bet, and the rules of the system have all been researched and worked out beforehand based on statistics (like Turbo's repeater system). But if you don't know how you're going to react (there are no rules) then aren't you just guessing and hoping for the best? If so, how can this give you an edge?

Of course a system doesn't have to be set in stone with completely rigid rules and no flexibility, but that doesn't mean it can't be simulated. You can simulate a set of guidelines using fuzzy logic, or incorporate a range of options or decisions to make based on certain criteria. Within this basic framework you're basically guessing or betting randomly. The coding would be more complex but it can certainly be done.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 10, 12:27 PM 2018
Hi Joe,

My intentions with this post was not to totally discredit simulations altogether.  Some people, especially those new to the game, definitely need to test.  For example, the guy that claims you will never see more than 10 reds in a row, and uses a martingale progression.  A simple simulation of 200 spins will show him how common even bets go missing for 10 or more spins.  So yes, simulations are useful.

I'm more against the argument that some make against players winnings, using the simulation argument.  The argument basically goes like this:  if I run enough spins for enough trials your system will fail.  But simulation doesn't factor in alot of variables.  It can test the system, and rules only but leaves the overall strategy out of the equation.  It leaves the human factor out of the equation.

If using simulations to run millions of spins just to show that a certain system will fail if tested long enough is in my opinion a waste of time.  If you look, you will find it.  Look at bias wheel players.  They use chi square calculations to determine if a wheel has enough bias to give them an edge.  Of course, they can't realistically track over a million spins because this would take years!  So, lets say  an AP player tracked 10000 spins to collect their data.  If I ran enough simulations, I could surely find a 10000 spin simulation that would give them false readings....I could say, hey look my simulation shows you would have played this wheel and lost all your money.  If you run enough trials, you can find anything.  If looking for a loss you will find it.



Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Tinsoldiers on Jul 10, 07:22 PM 2018
Quote from: Scarface on Jul 10, 12:27 PM 2018It can test the system, and rules only but leaves the overall strategy out of the equation.  It leaves the human factor out of the equation.
Very nice points.  The quote is what I hate to hear normally. Any strategy can be simulated as long as you don’t play what comes to your mind and the strategy is set out clearly at the start. Of course you can’t simulate conditions where you don’t like the dealer or the pit boss and moving on.

People typically attack with a million spin argument only when someone say they have a holy grail and it never loses. And trust me if someone had such a system then it is very easy to simulate. Not difficult at all.  You cited your investment in stocks, remember you chose to play the stocks you want and you had a winning strategy or luck was on your side.  Same goes for roulette, on the hypothetical scenario that you have the winning strategy or the likely scenario that you are riding your luck house edge will not catch you.

On the topic of simulation though I agree with you. You don’t need simulation of a million spins to prove your strategy works. As long as you can prove that for a finite amount of spins you will always end in the positive, it doesn’t matter how much spins you simulate.  But if you can’t prove above then it doesn’t matter even if you simulate a million spins and won, the first time you start to play for it the downturn could hit you on the face. 
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 11, 09:19 AM 2018
Quote from: Scarface on Jul 09, 11:16 AM 2018
Fallacy - faulty reasoning;  misleading or unsound argument.  A failure in reasoning that leaves an argument invalid

We've all seen it here.  A winner will post their charts showing their winnings, and the naysayers come in to dismiss it.  They will say it was luck, or not enough spins.  100 spins is not enough!  500 spins is not enough!  Test with a relevant number of spins!  Your system will fail if simulated for 1 millions spins!

The simulation argument is a fallacy for several reasons.  The most obvious one is that no one will play continuously for 1 million spins.  You can take your profits at 30, 100, or 200 spins.  Our sessions may not all last the same amout of time.  When we choose to end a session is up to the player.



Why don't you test your system for only one spin?  ::)
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: nottophammer on Jul 11, 10:14 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 11, 09:19 AM 2018
Why don't you test your system for only one spin?  ::)
(link:://:.pichost.org/images/2018/07/11/temp_806686.gif) (link:://:.pichost.org/image/2V8wc)
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Bigbroben on Jul 11, 10:43 AM 2018
Quote from: nottophammer on Jul 11, 10:14 AM 2018
(link:://:.pichost.org/images/2018/07/11/temp_806686.gif) (link:://:.pichost.org/image/2V8wc)

Is that the guy who was asked if he had found Waldo?
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 11, 10:52 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 11, 09:19 AM 2018
Why don't you test your system for only one spin?  ::)

All test will fail if you run enough simulations.  Even your chi square can fail.  Strategy is more important.  What is your strategy if your tests show a bias wheel that is not bias?  Do you play until your bankroll is wiped out like the simulation shows?  Or do you stop, and take your loss?
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Tinsoldiers on Jul 11, 11:16 AM 2018
Quote from: Scarface on Jul 11, 10:52 AM 2018Strategy is more important. 
Let's talk real Scarface. You think you will be able to give one strategy. I will try to do it in a disciplined manner and see how that strategy holds. Like everyone else, I am looking for something that wins and unfortunately dont have one. Please dont do riddles and puzzles.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Joe on Jul 12, 12:48 PM 2018
Quote from: Scarface on Jul 11, 10:52 AM 2018Even your chi square can fail.  Strategy is more important.  What is your strategy if your tests show a bias wheel that is not bias?

Don't a lot of casinos these days run Chi square tests on their wheels? If the casino does it then any advantage player looking for biased wheels can't just be using what the casino uses, unless they're only looking in old backstreet casinos where they're unlikely to monitor the wheels closely.  But these kind of casinos are more likely to be ripping you off anyway.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 14, 10:36 AM 2018
Tinsoldiers, I think you are asking about a system to test?  Not so much a strategy.  When I talk about strategy, I'm referring to my own personal rules which is almost impossible to simulate because they may change depending on how the game is going.

My strategy is to bring no more than 20-25% of my bankroll to casino.  This way I can never lose my entire bankroll in a single session if variance takes an ugly turn.  My strategy is sometimes start with a parachute system, playing many numbers with few chips to grind out small gains.  Normally, I'll always switch to a repeater system playing few numbers.

My goal may be 500 units, and leave.  But at times I hit this early and raise my goal to 1000 units using a up as you win positive progression.  If it goes back down to 500, I'll stop.  If it reaches 1000, I may even change my goal to 1500, with a stopping point at +1000. 

Some days wins don't come so quickly.  I'll play for up to 6 to 8 hours alot.  Usually when I get to that 6 hour mark, that's when I'm looking for a good point to exit the game.  Main reason for this is really because I'm tired of playing at that point.

My strategy will never involve steep negative progressions.  I will never go from betting 1 unit a number to 50 units.  If I do a negative progression, it will only be after a hit and only if there was a long gap between hits.  Normally, I will never go more than 1 unit to 5 units max.

Positive progressions are a different story.  If variance is on my side, I will keep adding to my wagers as long as the wins keep coming.

But looks like you are looking for a system to test.  I like playing recent repeaters, no more than 4 numbers.  Check out the post for Repeaters and Gaps.   
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: falkor2k15 on Jul 14, 11:21 AM 2018
Quote
Tinsoldiers, I think you are asking about a system to test?  Not so much a strategy.  When I talk about strategy, I'm referring to my own personal rules which is almost impossible to simulate because they may change depending on how the game is going.
There's nothing you can do with RNG Roulette that a computer cannot be programmed to do in your place.

Winkel said the same thing: he follows the trot and claimed a computer cannot have "gambler's intelligence".  :lol:

This is very telling - says more about Scarface and winkel than it does about simulations.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 14, 05:20 PM 2018
Quote from: falkor2k15 on Jul 14, 11:21 AM 2018
There's nothing you can do with RNG Roulette that a computer cannot be programmed to do in your place.

Winkel said the same thing: he follows the trot and claimed a computer cannot have "gambler's intelligence".  :lol:

This is very telling - says more about Scarface and winkel than it does about simulations.

Falknor, do you play in a b&m much?  I know you said you spend alot of time testing systems.  What do you hope to find?  A system that never fails?  This is pointless.  If you run enough simulations for long enough, all systems will fail.  Run enough simulations then you'll see the same number repeat 36 times.  All things all possible if you test enough.  So, what are you left with?

I agree with Winkel.  I like to call it gamblers intuition.  I'm not talking about remote viewing what numbers that will come up next.  I'm talking about what tells me to stop, and take that small loss.  Or, maybe to change my system.  Or when to call it quits.

Don't be so quick to dismiss intuition.  There is some science to back this up.  There have been experiments that suggest that our bodies react to certain stimuli before our conscious minds are aware.  I can point you to some of the science, if you're interested in this.

Here's what I know.  I can quit and take may profit/ loss at anytime I choose.  I can change the system I'm playing at anytime I choose.  But, you tie your own hands with your own rules.  You will play according to your system.  You will envitiablly lose your whole bankroll with to your system, by sticking to your rules. 

Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Tinsoldiers on Jul 14, 06:53 PM 2018
You are now deviating from what you started this whole thing or at least it sounded like.  Intuition and Biased wheel conditions cannot be simulated and no one is saying simulate that to death. People only say simulation when someone claims there is a mechanical method and it will never lose.  I am sure anyone will agree this is completely different from intuition. There is no strategy here. Strategy can be defined, it can be repeatable executed and it can be simulated. That’s different from when I play what my mind says, that’s not strategy - as you rightly put it is intuition and no one is saying here simulate it. 
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 14, 10:33 PM 2018
QuoteI know you said you spend alot of time testing systems.  What do you hope to find?  A system that never fails?  This is pointless.  If you run enough simulations for long enough, all systems will fail.  Run enough simulations then you'll see the same number repeat 36 times.  All things all possible if you test enough.  So, what are you left with?


If you're system will fail in the long run then it can fail in the short run too.  99.9% of the time there's no reason to test a system because the results can easily be calculated mathematically.  The goal is to develop a method that overcomes the house edge and that will win in the long run.

QuoteI agree with Winkel.  I like to call it gamblers intuition.  I'm not talking about remote viewing what numbers that will come up next.  I'm talking about what tells me to stop, and take that small loss.  Or, maybe to change my system.  Or when to call it quits.

I call it guessing.   And if you test you're "gambler's intuition" then you too will find that you're really just guessing.  ::)


QuoteHere's what I know.  I can quit and take may profit/ loss at anytime I choose.  I can change the system I'm playing at anytime I choose.  But, you tie your own hands with your own rules.  You will play according to your system.  You will envitiablly lose your whole bankroll with to your system, by sticking to your rules.

No you can't!  You can try and try, but you can't step outside of probability.  This means in the long run you can't win or lose at a rate that exceeds the house edge. A good example of this is Maestro on the MPR game.  The last time I'd checked he'd played so many spins that he'd locked into losing at exactly the house edge and had no hope of ever breaking even again.

QuoteBiased wheel conditions cannot be simulated.

If you have a statistically relevant number of spins from a biased wheel, which I do, then you most certainly can simulate and test.  As a matter of fact I have millions of spins from such wheels.  On some of the wheels I have over 300k spins.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 15, 12:20 AM 2018
General, you can't sidestep probability right?  Someone can claim that 20 repeaters in a row can never happen.  But you can claim that if you simulate a statistically revelent number spins, at some point it will.  So, with randomness and enough test anything is possible.  So, that means even your chi square method of spotting bias wheels at some point will fail in the long run.  Random can spit out numbers way outside standard deviation on a wheel that isn't biased at all.  You can't get around it.  Your bankroll will eventually all be lost to the house edge  :wink:
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 15, 12:42 AM 2018
Scarface,

What do you consider to be a relevant chi square demonstrating a playable biased wheel?
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Scarface on Jul 15, 12:46 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 15, 12:42 AM 2018
Scarface,

What do you consider to be a relevant chi square demonstrating a playable biased wheel?

You tell me, General.  You're the expert on it.  I'm just saying that random can through you a curveball.  If you can't admit this is possible, then you are saying there are limits to randomness.  Can't have it both ways. 
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 15, 12:55 AM 2018
I don't play on a biased wheel unless I'm absolutely sure that it's biased.  However, contrary to popular believe, the wheel is found before the numbers are written.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 15, 02:55 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 15, 12:55 AM 2018
the wheel is found before the numbers are written.

Since the invention of the wheel not so hard to find one ... :wink:
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Kattila on Jul 15, 04:41 AM 2018
Quote from: Herby on Jul 15, 02:55 AM 2018
Since the invention of the wheel not so hard to find one ... :wink:

I found the general's wheel, lost by his soldiers...... :twisted:
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Joe on Jul 15, 05:07 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 15, 12:55 AM 2018I don't play on a biased wheel unless I'm absolutely sure that it's biased.  However, contrary to popular believe, the wheel is found before the numbers are written.

That's what I meant when I said in my earlier post that you must be doing more than just recording numbers and using chi-square, though I'm not sure what.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 15, 05:39 AM 2018
Quote from: Joe on Jul 15, 05:07 AM 2018
I'm not sure what.
General's dancing on the table will surely tilt the wheel.  O0
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 15, 05:45 AM 2018
As the topic here is simulation.
General can you show us some differential equations of a sphere rolling with friction on a cone ?
Considering tilt would be nice too.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 15, 12:02 PM 2018
Quote from: Herby on Jul 15, 05:45 AM 2018
As the topic here is simulation.
General can you show us some differential equations of a sphere rolling with friction on a cone ?
Considering tilt would be nice too.

Here you go.


Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone
I Campos,†J L Fern´andez-Chapou,‡ A L Salas-Brito,*‡ C A
Vargas,‡§
† Facultad de Ciencias, Universidad Nacional Aut´onoma de M´exico, Apartado Postal
21-939, Mexico City 04000 D F, M´exico
‡ Departamento de Ciencias B´asicas, Universidad Aut´onoma Metropolitana, Unidad
Azcapotzalco, Apartado Postal 21-267 Coyoacan, Mexico City 04000 D F, M´exico
* Nonlinear Dynamical Systems Group, Department of Mathematics and Statistics,
San Diego State University, 5500 Campanile Drive, San Diego, CA 92182-7720, USA
Abstract. We analyse the motion of a sphere that rolls without slipping on a conical
surface having its axis in the direction of the constant gravitational field of the Earth.
This nonholonomic system admits a solution in terms of quadratures. We exhibit that
the only circular of the system orbit is stable and furthermore show that all its solutions
can be found using an analogy with central force problems. We also discuss the case
of motion with no gravitational field, that is, of motion on a freely falling cone.
Submitted to: Eur. J. Phys.
‡ On sabbatical leave from Laboratorio de Sistemas Din´amicos, UAM-Azcapotzalco, Mexico City D F,
Mexico, email: asb@correo.azc.uam.mx
§ Corresponding author. E-mail: cvargas@correo.azc.uam.mx
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 2
1. Introduction
Rigid body motion has always been an interesting and very usable subject of classical
mechanics [1, 2]. Many subtle points of dynamics and of mathematical techniques for
studying the behaviour of physical systems can be learned by studying the motion of
rigid bodies. On this matter see, for example, [3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10]. Part of the interest
of today comes from the insight that can be gained on the behaviour of spinning asteroids
or artificial satellites and, furthermore, rigid body motion can be chaotic [11, 12, 13].
Besides, many everyday phenomena can be understood in terms of rigid body motion
at least in a first approximation. For example, balls rolling on inclines, motion in
toboggans, bowls in a bowling alley, the motion of snow boarders, the dynamics of
bicycles or wheels, the behaviour of billiard balls, and so on. Though the importance
of rigid bodies is clear, some of the problems involving rolling particles on a surface are
often modelled in beginning courses as point particles sliding on surfaces [6, 14]. This
modelling is an appropriate pedagogical device in introductory courses but we want to
show here that the problems can be addressed using a rigid body approach in more
advanced courses.
In this work we analyse the motion of a sphere that rolls without slipping on the
inside of a right circular cone under the influence of a uniform gravitational field acting
verically downwards, in the direction of the symmetry axis of the cone. The motion
of a spherical body rolling without slipping on surfaces of revolution has been recently
studied with the purpose of illuminating control processes [10]. Here our aim is to
study the motion of a sphere on the inner surface of a conical surfaceas an exactly
solvable example of rigid body motion. We obtain the general solution of this problem
expressing it in quadratures. We analyse certain qualitative features of the motion, like
the existence of a stable circular orbit, establishing an analogy with particle motion in a
central force field in two dimensions. For the case of a conical surface in free fall we find
that the general solution of the problem can be casted in terms of expressions similar
to those defining sets of ellipses and hyperbolas. We also calculate the apsidal (apogee)
angle of the center of mass (CM) motion to find the orbit’s symmetry axes and argue
that the sphere’s CM trajectory densely fills a strip on the conical surface.
2. The equations of motion
To describe the position of the sphere’s centre of mass (CM), we choose a Cartesian
coordinate system (x, y, z) such that the origin of coordinates is at the position of the
sphere’s centre of mass (CM) when the sphere simply rests on the cone (that is, it
corresponds to the vertex of the imaginary cone â€"shown dashed in figure 1â€" on which
the CM moves); the coordinates are then (see Figure 1)
x = r sin α cos Ï',
y = r sin α sin Ï',
z = r cos α,
(1)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 3
Figure 1. The cone on which the sphere of radius a rolls is shown in a continuous
black line. The dashed cone is the imaginary cone on which the sphere’s centre of mass
(CM) moves. The imaginary cone is the same as the actual one but displaced upwards
a distance a cscα. The origin of coordinates is chosen as the vertex of the imaginary
cone so the vertex of the actual cone is at z0 = âˆ'a cscα. The figure also shows the
CM generalised coordinates r and Ï'. The radius of the parallel circle containing the
CM is symbolised by ρ.
where α is half the angle of aperture of the cone â€"therefore, 0 ≤ α ≤ Ï€/2, α = Ï€/2
corresponds to motion on a plane, whereas α = 0 to motion on a cylindrical surfaceâ€",
r is the distance from the origin to the CM, and Ï' is the polar angle of the sphere’s CM.
All these relations may be seen from figure 1. The tangential components of the CM
velocity, in the, respectively, meridional and parallel directions to the conical surface
(using a sort of geographical terminology), are
u = ˙r,
v = r sin αÏ'.Ë™
(2)
Therefore, Lagrangian of the system can be written as
L =
1
2
M(u
2 + v
2
) + 1
2
I[φ˙2 + 2φ˙ψ˙ cos θ + ˙θ
2 + φ˙2
] âˆ' Mgz (3)
where M is the mass, I = 5Ma2/2, is the moment of inertia of the sphere, a its radius;
g is the acceleration of gravity, and φ, θ and ψ are Euler’s angles [1]. Lagrangian (3)
with u, v, and z defined appropriately, is fairly general; the description it gives is valid
for an arbitrary surface of revolution with a sphere rolling on its surface.
The motion of the sphere is further constrained according to u âˆ' aω · eˆ1 = 0,
and v + aω · eˆ2 = 0, where ω is the angular velocity vector of the sphere, and
eˆ1 = (sin α cos Ï', sin α sin Ï', cos α), eˆ2 = (âˆ' sin Ï', cos Ï', 0) are unit vectors in the,
respectively, direction of the meridional line and the parallel circle on the cone. The
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 4
vector ω can be written in terms of the Euler angles, an expression that can be found in
many textbooks [1, 2, 3]. If we employ equations (2) for substituting u and v, we obtain
rË™
a
âˆ' ˙θ sin(φ âˆ' Ï') + ψ˙ sin θ cos(φ âˆ' Ï') = 0,
Ï'Ë™ sin α
r
a
+ ˙θ sin α cos(φ âˆ' Ï') âˆ' φ˙ sin α +
ψ˙
[sin α sin θ sin(φ âˆ' Ï') + cos α cos θ] = 0; (4)
these two relations just mean that the sphere rolls with no slipping on the surface of
the cone.
The equations of motion of the sphere can be obtained, from L and constrictions
(4), using Lagrange’s undetermined coefficient method[2], to get
uË™ + v

v
ρ
sin α âˆ'
2
7
aκω
= âˆ'
5
7
g cos α,
vË™ âˆ' u

v
ρ
sin α

= 0,
aω˙ + uvκ = 0, (5)
where ρ is the radius of curvature of the parallel circle at point of contact: ρ = r sin α,
κ = cos α/ρ, and ω ≡ ω3 is the component of ω normal to the cone.
The first two equations above are essentially Newton’s second law for the centre of
mass of the sphere, the third one is its rotating counterpart for a rotating rigid sphere.
With the help of the constrictions, the Euler’s angles have been eliminated from the
description.
3. Conserved Quantities in the Motion of the Sphere
It should be clear that the total energy, E, of the sphere is a constant of motion since we
are neglecting any dissipative effects. The energy of the sphere can be obtained directly
from equations (5),
E =
7
10
M(u
2 + v
2
) + 7
10
Iω2 +
7
5
Mgz. (6)
We note in passing that this expression (6) is valid, again with u and v properly defined,
for any surface of revolution. The point z = 0 has been chosen as the point of zero
potential energy [1, 10]. It can be worth noting that the factor 7/10 in the CM’s kinetic
energy, instead of the usual 1/2, comes from effects associated with the rolling-but-noslipping
condition.
For arbitrary surfaces of revolution, the energy is the only constant of motion. But
in our conical case it is simple to show, using the equations of motion (5), that the
z-component of the angular momentum of the center of mass (CM) is also a constant
of the motion,
Lz = Mρv = Mρ2Ï'.Ë™ (7)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 5
Moreover, for spheres rolling on flat surfaces â€"with symmetry axis as z-axisâ€" there
exist one more constant of motion given by [10]
L+ = l âˆ'
2ab2
5(z âˆ' c)
Lz (8)
with b and c constants coming from the parametrization, in cylindrical coordinates, of
such surfaces as
z = bρ + c, (9)
where l = Iω is the angular momentum of the sphere respect to the normal to the
surface of revolution at the point of contact and ω the rotational angular speed around
this same axis. In the conical surface b is the slope of the generatrix and c is the zcoordinate
of its vertex. The easiest way of showing that (8) is a constant is by taking
its t-derivative and using (5) to show that it vanishes. In is also worth pinpointing
that z ≥ 0 ≥ z0 ≡ âˆ'a csc α since the sphere is geometrically constrainedâ€"i. e. we are
assuming that it is not possible for the sphere to cut through the surface of the cone; z0
being the z-coordinate of the vertex of the cone on which the sphere is rolling.
Using equation (2) and the expression for ρ in the integrals of motion (6), (7) and (8),
we obtain
1
2
M( ˙r
2 + r
2Ï'Ë™2
sin2 α) + 1
7
Ma2ω
2 +
5
7
Mgr cos α =
5
7
E, (10)
Mr2Ï'Ë™ sin2 α = Lz, (11)
aω âˆ'
Lz cos α
Mr sin2 α
=
2 L+
5 Ma
≡ h, (12)
where h is a new constant. Notice that equation (11) shows that Ï' never changes sign,
i. e. the change in Ï' is monotonic.
4. The equivalent radial problem
Combining the previous equations, we can get a new expression for r which can be
expressed as
E =
1
2
MrË™
2 +
A
r
2
+
B
r
+ Cr, (13)
with E, A, B and C constants defined by
E =
5
7
E âˆ'
1
7
Mh2
,
A =
L
2
z
(1 + 2
7
cot2 α)
2M sin2 α
,
B =
2
7
Lzh
sin α
cot α,
C =
5
7
Mg cos α,
(14)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 6
Figure 2. The effective potential Veff(r) is plotted against r in arbitrary units. A
particular value of the constant ‘energy’ E = âˆ'1 is also shown. The points marked
r1 and r2 are turning points, that is, points in which ˙r = 0. As the plot exhibits the
effective potential has only one minimum and thus just two turning points for any
E > Veff(rc). The plot also exhibits that Veff(r) attains its minimum value at rc and
that this is a stable minimum. The plot was made using A = 1, B = âˆ'3.5, C = 2 in
equation (15).
in the case the sphere is rotating around the cone axis [Lz 6= 0 and 0 < α < π/2] both
A and C are strictly positive constants.
Expression (13) can be regarded as the energy equation for an equivalent, purely
‘radial’ problem, with an effective potential energy term given by
Veff(r) = A
r
2
+
B
r
+ Cr, (15)
which we show in figure 2. In this figure we have also traced a constant E(=
âˆ'1, in arbitrary units) value as the horizontal line crossing Veff in two points, r1 and
r2â€"the turning points where Ë™r vanishes. This figure shows the typical behaviour of Veff.
A glance to figure 2 thus shows that the motion is restricted between the two turning
points, meaning that the sphere’s CM moves on a strip bounded by two parallel circles
on the conical surface.
The graph of Veff, figure 2, also shows a minimum value at rc. That is, an stable
circular orbit is possible at this distance rc. The actual radius of the circular orbit, as
measured from the cone’s symmetry axis, is ρc = rc sin α.
Moreover, equation (13) can be directly integrated to yield the general solution of
the problem as
t = ±
Z r
r1
dr′
q
2
M
[E âˆ' (
A
r
′2 +
B
r
′ + Cr′)]
, (16)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 7
where we have chosen the reference point as one of the turning points of the motion.
Taking into account that Ë™r = (dr/dt)Ï'Ë™
, we obtain, from equations (11) and (13), the
orbit equation as
Ï' = ±
1
sin2 α
√
2M
Z r
r1
Lzdr′
r
′2
q
E âˆ' (
A
r
′2 +
B
r
′ + Cr′
)
, (17)
where r1 corresponds to the first turning point and the double sign corresponds to the
clockwise and counterclockwise rotations, respectively. Equations (16) and (17) are the
general form of the solution of the problem in terms of quadratures. The integrals (17)
and (16) can be expressed in terms of elliptic integrals of the first and of the second
kind, but such expressions do not offer much insight into the properties of the motion.
However, a simple analysis of figure 2 says that the motion is always bounded between
r1 and r2, and that, for given E, h, and Lz, there can be only one circular orbit which
besides is stable. To determine the radius, rc, of this orbit we must take Ë™u = 0 â€"which
means that the acceleration, and thus the force, in the r-direction vanishesâ€" in (5) to
get
7Ï'Ë™2
c
rc sin2 α âˆ'
h
5g âˆ' 2aωcÏ'Ë™
c
i
cos α = 0, (18)
the suffix c meaning magnitudes evaluated on the parallel circle r = rc. Since the first
term in equation (18) is always positive and cos α > 0 because 0 < α < π/2, the circular
orbit is only possible when the initial conditions are such that
Ï'Ë™
cωc <
5g
2a
. (19)
Equation (18) is quite useful since it allows evaluating any one of the three quantities
rc, Ï'Ë™
c, or ωc as a function of initial conditions of the remaining two for starting the
motion on the circular orbit. If we know the initial values ω0 and Ï'Ë™
0, we could ascertain
whether equation (18) has a solution or not, just by checking if those initial values satisfy
equation (19). Clearly equation (19) holds if ω0 and Ï'Ë™
0 have contrary signs independent
of their magnitudes. Now equation (18) has one solution for ωc with initial conditions
r0 and Ï'Ë™
0 while it has two solutions with initial conditions r0 and ω0 one of opposite
sign to ω0 and another of the same sign, but satisfying equation (19).
Equation (18) in terms of the constants of motion Lz and h is
5 r
3
c M2
g sin2 α cos αâˆ'2 rc MLzh sin2 α cos αâˆ'7L
2
z

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

= 0.(20)
This is a cubic equation for rc that has always a real positive root; but let us pinpoint
that, due to condition (19), this equation is only valid when 2hLz < 5Mr2
c
g sin2 α. The
existence of only one real and positive root, follows from the fact that the last term in
(20) is less than zero, whereas the coefficient of the first term is positive [15]. However,
it can be much simpler to just take a look at figure 2, as it exhibits that there is one
and only one circular orbit on the surface.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 8
There is a further point worth mentioning, the existence of a relationship between
the radius of the circular orbit and the r-values of the turning points, ri
, i = 1, 2,
namely
r
3
c =
2r
2
1
r
2
2
r1 + r2
+
B
C

rc âˆ'
r1r2
r1 + r2

. (21)
This is the sort of property called universal in [6]; in fact, (21) is very easily shown to
reduce to equation (13) of reference [6] in the point particle limit (that is, when B = 0).
5. Analogy with an Non Homogeneous Harmonic Oscillator and the Orbit
on a Freelly Falling Cone.
Let us substitute equations (2) in the first of equations (5), to get
r¨ âˆ' rÏ•Ë™ =
2
7
Ï•Ë™
sin α
(aω) cosα âˆ'
5
7
g cos α, (22)
where Ï• ≡ Ï' sin α. Multiplying by M and using equations(7) and (8) in the right hand
side of equation (22), we get
M(¨r âˆ' rÏ•Ë™
2
) = f(r), (23)
where
f(r) ≡
B′
r
2
+
A′
r
3
âˆ'
5
7
Mg cos α, (24)
and
B
′ ≡
2
7
Lh cot α
A
′ ≡
2
7
L
2
cot2 α
M
L ≡ Mr2ϕ˙ =
Lz
sin α
;
(25)
therefore the equations of motion of the sphere are found, as we did in section 4,
analogous to the equations of motion of a particle in a central force field. The variables
r(t) and Ï•(t) can be considered as the polar coordinates of a particle moving on a plane
under the action of the “central” force f(r) given in equation (23). If, additionally we
assume the cone is in free fall, that is, that g = 0, then the orbit of the center of the
sphere, r = r(Ï•), can be easily obtained by rewriting equation (22) in terms of Ï•, using
the relations
d
dt
= ˙ϕ
d
dϕ =
L
Mr2
d
dϕ (26)
and
d
2
dt2
=
L
2
Mr2
d
dϕ 
1
r
2
d
dϕ
. (27)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 9
Now, introducing Binet’s variable W ≡ 1/r, the equation of motion (23) becomes, with
g = 0 and using (26) and (27),
d
2W
dϕ2
+

1 +
2
7
cot2 α

W = âˆ'
2
7
Mh cot α
L
(28)
or, in terms of the angle in the polar plane, Ï' = Ï•/ sin α, and the vertical component of
the angular momentum, Lz,
d
2W
dÏ'2
+

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

W = âˆ'
2
7
Mh cos α sin2 α
Lz
. (29)
This is the well-known inhomogeneous differential equation for harmonic motion. If we
define â,,¦2 ≡ (1 âˆ' (5/7) cos2 α), the general solution can be written
W ≡
1
r
= A cos [â,,¦(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0)] âˆ'
2Mh sin2 α cos α
7Lzâ,,¦2
. (30)
The constants of integration A and Ï'0 can be determined by the initial conditions.
To clasify the solutions of the problem in free fall, we recognize two cases,
A) when h and Lz have different signs, i.e. hLz < 0; or
B) when h and Lz have the same sign, i.e., hLz > 0.
In any case, the general solution can be written in the form
W ≡
1
r
=
cos α
p
e cos [â,,¦(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) ± 1] (31)
with
p ≡
7|Lz|â,,¦
2
2M|h|sin2 α
(32)
or in the form
r(Ï') = rmin
e ± 1
e cos â,,¦(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) ± 1
(33)
with
rmin =
p
cos α(e ± 1), (34)
where e and Ï'0 are constants of integration. The sign in equation (34) is plus if hLz < 0
and minus if hLz > 0. Without loss of generality we can assume that e ≥ 0, since its
sign can be changed by substituting Ï' â†' Ï'+Ï€, that is, just by changing the orientation
of the coordinates.
The possible motions are best analysed case by case, as follows.
A) In the case that hLz > 0, we have the minus sign in equation (34) and therefore
e > 1. In this case there are two values of Ï' for which e cos â,,¦(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) = 1. When Ï'
approaches any of these two values r â†' ∞; therefore they define two asymptotes
and the orbit corresponds to a branch of an hyperbola.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 10
B) In the case that hLz < 0, the plus sign is in order in equation (34). We find now
four possibilities, e = 0, 0 < e < 1, e = 1 and e > 1. The motion in these cases is
as we describe in what follows.
B1. If e = 0, the orbit is the circle
r(Ï') = rc = p csc α

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

; (35)
this relation coincides with (20) if g = 0.
B2. If 0 < e < 1, the orbit is confined to the strip defined by the two parallel
circles on the cone, having radii
r = rmin (36)
and
r = rmax = rmin
1 + e
1 âˆ' e
. (37)
The CM of the sphere touches the circle with radius r = rmax when
Ï' âˆ' Ï'0 =
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
, (38)
which means that the apsidal angle ψ (the angle swept by the CM’s radius
vector in going from rmin to rmax) is
ψ =
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
> π, (39)
thus the apsides advance in each period of rotation. As the orbit is symmetric
with respect to the polar axis (r(âˆ'Ï') = r(Ï')), the angular displacement of the
apsides in each rotation of the center of the sphere around the z-axis is
∆ψ = 2Ï€[(1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2 âˆ' 1] (40)
and the angular velocity of precession of the apsides is
∆ψ
T
=
2Ï€
T
[(1âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2âˆ'1] = hÏ'Ë™i[(1âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2âˆ'1](41)
where T is the period of rotation of the CM around the z axis, and
hÏ'Ë™i ≡ 1
T
Z T
0
Ï'dt Ë™ ≡
2Ï€
T
(42)
is the mean value of Ï'Ë™
.
Since (1 âˆ' 5 cos2 α/7)1/2
can be shown to be an irrational number for 0 < α <
Ï€/2, the orbit never repeats itself thus filling completely the strip that contains
the orbit as t â†' ∞. We may say that the orbit is ergodic on the strip, that is,
that eventually the orbit would densely fill all of the strip’s surface.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 11
B3. If e = 1, we can easily verify that r â†' ∞ as
Ï' â†' ±
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
+ Ï'0. (43)
Therefore, the orbit is a branch of an hyperbola with asymptotes defined by
Ï' = ±
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
+ Ï'0. (44)
B4. If e > 1, then there exist two values of Ï' for which
e cosr
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) = âˆ'1, (45)
and therefore r â†' ∞ when Ï' approaches any of these values, which simply
define the asymptotes of the corresponding branch of the hyperbola.
The only thing that remains to be done is to obtain the value of e in terms of the
constants of motion. For this we have only to susbstitute the values of rmin and of p
into equation (13) (with C = 0) to get
e =
s
1 +
49(1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)E
2Mh2 cos2 α
. (46)
Note that e depends only on E and h, and, furthermore, that 0 < e < 1, if E < 0; that
e = 1, if E = 0; and that e > 1, if E > 0. But, if hLz > 0 then B > 0 and therefore
E > 0, from which we have e > 1 always, consequently this case is equivalent to motion
in a repulsive force field.
6. Conclusions
We have studied the motion of a sphere rolling on the inner surface of a right circular cone
with opening angle α under the assumption that it does not slip. The motion was first
considered under the action of gravity and we managed to obtain an implicit solution in
quadratures. We established the existence of bounded motions and of circular orbits in
the system analysing an effective potential in which the equivalent single particle system
moves. With the help of this effective potential we were able to reduce the problem to
quadratures obtaining implicitly r(t) and thus θ(t).
However, to actually integrate the equations of motion for obtaining the centre’s
of mass orbit in terms of elementary functions, we required changing to a freely falling
frame. In such a frame we have been able to obtain solutions for the CM orbit analogous
to ones in a related central problem. We have been able to show, with the help of this
relation, that the CM can move on hyperbolic or on preceding elliptic, but never on
parabolic orbits.
The analogy between motions in our system with central-field motion and specially
with an inhomogeneous oscillator in the freely falling case, should be pointed out as
interesting and quite amusing. This aspect of the behaviour has a certain pedagogical
significance as can serve to emphasise that the same equations have always the same
solutions; it does not really matter that we are describing different physical systems.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 12
Acknowledgments
ALSB has been partially supported by a PAPIIT-UNAM grant (108302), he expresses
his thaks to the Computational Science Research Center of SDSU and particularly
to Jose E Castillo and Ricardo Carretero-Gonz´alez for computational support. We
acknowledge with thanks the help of H. N. N´u˜nez-Y´epez. The cheerful collaboration of
A Simon and the late M Nick of Rolando California, and of H Kranken, P M Lobitta,
D Yoli, V Binny of the Monte Bello gang, is also gratefully acknowledged. This paper
is dedicated to the memory of our beloved friends P M Botitas, F C Sadi, M K Dochi,
and C Suri.
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Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 15, 12:32 PM 2018
Hi General
thank you very much for the interesting article.
A quick look at the Lagrangian operator shows that this is for a sphere without friction, so the ball will never land.
How will you win in this case ?  :question:
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Jul 16, 10:27 PM 2018
Quote from: Herby on Jul 15, 12:32 PM 2018
Hi General
thank you very much for the interesting article.
A quick look at the Lagrangian operator shows that this is for a sphere without friction, so the ball will never land.
How will you win in this case ?  :question:

Gravity will ensure the ball drops.  Duh!
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Kanam on Jul 16, 10:58 PM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 15, 12:02 PM 2018
Here you go.


Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone
I Campos,†J L Fern´andez-Chapou,‡ A L Salas-Brito,*‡ C A
Vargas,‡§
† Facultad de Ciencias, Universidad Nacional Aut´onoma de M´exico, Apartado Postal
21-939, Mexico City 04000 D F, M´exico
‡ Departamento de Ciencias B´asicas, Universidad Aut´onoma Metropolitana, Unidad
Azcapotzalco, Apartado Postal 21-267 Coyoacan, Mexico City 04000 D F, M´exico
* Nonlinear Dynamical Systems Group, Department of Mathematics and Statistics,
San Diego State University, 5500 Campanile Drive, San Diego, CA 92182-7720, USA
Abstract. We analyse the motion of a sphere that rolls without slipping on a conical
surface having its axis in the direction of the constant gravitational field of the Earth.
This nonholonomic system admits a solution in terms of quadratures. We exhibit that
the only circular of the system orbit is stable and furthermore show that all its solutions
can be found using an analogy with central force problems. We also discuss the case
of motion with no gravitational field, that is, of motion on a freely falling cone.
Submitted to: Eur. J. Phys.
‡ On sabbatical leave from Laboratorio de Sistemas Din´amicos, UAM-Azcapotzalco, Mexico City D F,
Mexico, email: asb@correo.azc.uam.mx
§ Corresponding author. E-mail: cvargas@correo.azc.uam.mx
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 2
1. Introduction
Rigid body motion has always been an interesting and very usable subject of classical
mechanics [1, 2]. Many subtle points of dynamics and of mathematical techniques for
studying the behaviour of physical systems can be learned by studying the motion of
rigid bodies. On this matter see, for example, [3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10]. Part of the interest
of today comes from the insight that can be gained on the behaviour of spinning asteroids
or artificial satellites and, furthermore, rigid body motion can be chaotic [11, 12, 13].
Besides, many everyday phenomena can be understood in terms of rigid body motion
at least in a first approximation. For example, balls rolling on inclines, motion in
toboggans, bowls in a bowling alley, the motion of snow boarders, the dynamics of
bicycles or wheels, the behaviour of billiard balls, and so on. Though the importance
of rigid bodies is clear, some of the problems involving rolling particles on a surface are
often modelled in beginning courses as point particles sliding on surfaces [6, 14]. This
modelling is an appropriate pedagogical device in introductory courses but we want to
show here that the problems can be addressed using a rigid body approach in more
advanced courses.
In this work we analyse the motion of a sphere that rolls without slipping on the
inside of a right circular cone under the influence of a uniform gravitational field acting
verically downwards, in the direction of the symmetry axis of the cone. The motion
of a spherical body rolling without slipping on surfaces of revolution has been recently
studied with the purpose of illuminating control processes [10]. Here our aim is to
study the motion of a sphere on the inner surface of a conical surfaceas an exactly
solvable example of rigid body motion. We obtain the general solution of this problem
expressing it in quadratures. We analyse certain qualitative features of the motion, like
the existence of a stable circular orbit, establishing an analogy with particle motion in a
central force field in two dimensions. For the case of a conical surface in free fall we find
that the general solution of the problem can be casted in terms of expressions similar
to those defining sets of ellipses and hyperbolas. We also calculate the apsidal (apogee)
angle of the center of mass (CM) motion to find the orbit’s symmetry axes and argue
that the sphere’s CM trajectory densely fills a strip on the conical surface.
2. The equations of motion
To describe the position of the sphere’s centre of mass (CM), we choose a Cartesian
coordinate system (x, y, z) such that the origin of coordinates is at the position of the
sphere’s centre of mass (CM) when the sphere simply rests on the cone (that is, it
corresponds to the vertex of the imaginary cone â€"shown dashed in figure 1â€" on which
the CM moves); the coordinates are then (see Figure 1)
x = r sin α cos Ï',
y = r sin α sin Ï',
z = r cos α,
(1)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 3
Figure 1. The cone on which the sphere of radius a rolls is shown in a continuous
black line. The dashed cone is the imaginary cone on which the sphere’s centre of mass
(CM) moves. The imaginary cone is the same as the actual one but displaced upwards
a distance a cscα. The origin of coordinates is chosen as the vertex of the imaginary
cone so the vertex of the actual cone is at z0 = âˆ'a cscα. The figure also shows the
CM generalised coordinates r and Ï'. The radius of the parallel circle containing the
CM is symbolised by ρ.
where α is half the angle of aperture of the cone â€"therefore, 0 ≤ α ≤ Ï€/2, α = Ï€/2
corresponds to motion on a plane, whereas α = 0 to motion on a cylindrical surfaceâ€",
r is the distance from the origin to the CM, and Ï' is the polar angle of the sphere’s CM.
All these relations may be seen from figure 1. The tangential components of the CM
velocity, in the, respectively, meridional and parallel directions to the conical surface
(using a sort of geographical terminology), are
u = ˙r,
v = r sin αÏ'.Ë™
(2)
Therefore, Lagrangian of the system can be written as
L =
1
2
M(u
2 + v
2
) + 1
2
I[φ˙2 + 2φ˙ψ˙ cos θ + ˙θ
2 + φ˙2
] âˆ' Mgz (3)
where M is the mass, I = 5Ma2/2, is the moment of inertia of the sphere, a its radius;
g is the acceleration of gravity, and φ, θ and ψ are Euler’s angles [1]. Lagrangian (3)
with u, v, and z defined appropriately, is fairly general; the description it gives is valid
for an arbitrary surface of revolution with a sphere rolling on its surface.
The motion of the sphere is further constrained according to u âˆ' aω · eˆ1 = 0,
and v + aω · eˆ2 = 0, where ω is the angular velocity vector of the sphere, and
eˆ1 = (sin α cos Ï', sin α sin Ï', cos α), eˆ2 = (âˆ' sin Ï', cos Ï', 0) are unit vectors in the,
respectively, direction of the meridional line and the parallel circle on the cone. The
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 4
vector ω can be written in terms of the Euler angles, an expression that can be found in
many textbooks [1, 2, 3]. If we employ equations (2) for substituting u and v, we obtain
rË™
a
âˆ' ˙θ sin(φ âˆ' Ï') + ψ˙ sin θ cos(φ âˆ' Ï') = 0,
Ï'Ë™ sin α
r
a
+ ˙θ sin α cos(φ âˆ' Ï') âˆ' φ˙ sin α +
ψ˙
[sin α sin θ sin(φ âˆ' Ï') + cos α cos θ] = 0; (4)
these two relations just mean that the sphere rolls with no slipping on the surface of
the cone.
The equations of motion of the sphere can be obtained, from L and constrictions
(4), using Lagrange’s undetermined coefficient method[2], to get
uË™ + v

v
ρ
sin α âˆ'
2
7
aκω
= âˆ'
5
7
g cos α,
vË™ âˆ' u

v
ρ
sin α

= 0,
aω˙ + uvκ = 0, (5)
where ρ is the radius of curvature of the parallel circle at point of contact: ρ = r sin α,
κ = cos α/ρ, and ω ≡ ω3 is the component of ω normal to the cone.
The first two equations above are essentially Newton’s second law for the centre of
mass of the sphere, the third one is its rotating counterpart for a rotating rigid sphere.
With the help of the constrictions, the Euler’s angles have been eliminated from the
description.
3. Conserved Quantities in the Motion of the Sphere
It should be clear that the total energy, E, of the sphere is a constant of motion since we
are neglecting any dissipative effects. The energy of the sphere can be obtained directly
from equations (5),
E =
7
10
M(u
2 + v
2
) + 7
10
Iω2 +
7
5
Mgz. (6)
We note in passing that this expression (6) is valid, again with u and v properly defined,
for any surface of revolution. The point z = 0 has been chosen as the point of zero
potential energy [1, 10]. It can be worth noting that the factor 7/10 in the CM’s kinetic
energy, instead of the usual 1/2, comes from effects associated with the rolling-but-noslipping
condition.
For arbitrary surfaces of revolution, the energy is the only constant of motion. But
in our conical case it is simple to show, using the equations of motion (5), that the
z-component of the angular momentum of the center of mass (CM) is also a constant
of the motion,
Lz = Mρv = Mρ2Ï'.Ë™ (7)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 5
Moreover, for spheres rolling on flat surfaces â€"with symmetry axis as z-axisâ€" there
exist one more constant of motion given by [10]
L+ = l âˆ'
2ab2
5(z âˆ' c)
Lz (8)
with b and c constants coming from the parametrization, in cylindrical coordinates, of
such surfaces as
z = bρ + c, (9)
where l = Iω is the angular momentum of the sphere respect to the normal to the
surface of revolution at the point of contact and ω the rotational angular speed around
this same axis. In the conical surface b is the slope of the generatrix and c is the zcoordinate
of its vertex. The easiest way of showing that (8) is a constant is by taking
its t-derivative and using (5) to show that it vanishes. In is also worth pinpointing
that z ≥ 0 ≥ z0 ≡ âˆ'a csc α since the sphere is geometrically constrainedâ€"i. e. we are
assuming that it is not possible for the sphere to cut through the surface of the cone; z0
being the z-coordinate of the vertex of the cone on which the sphere is rolling.
Using equation (2) and the expression for ρ in the integrals of motion (6), (7) and (8),
we obtain
1
2
M( ˙r
2 + r
2Ï'Ë™2
sin2 α) + 1
7
Ma2ω
2 +
5
7
Mgr cos α =
5
7
E, (10)
Mr2Ï'Ë™ sin2 α = Lz, (11)
aω âˆ'
Lz cos α
Mr sin2 α
=
2 L+
5 Ma
≡ h, (12)
where h is a new constant. Notice that equation (11) shows that Ï' never changes sign,
i. e. the change in Ï' is monotonic.
4. The equivalent radial problem
Combining the previous equations, we can get a new expression for r which can be
expressed as
E =
1
2
MrË™
2 +
A
r
2
+
B
r
+ Cr, (13)
with E, A, B and C constants defined by
E =
5
7
E âˆ'
1
7
Mh2
,
A =
L
2
z
(1 + 2
7
cot2 α)
2M sin2 α
,
B =
2
7
Lzh
sin α
cot α,
C =
5
7
Mg cos α,
(14)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 6
Figure 2. The effective potential Veff(r) is plotted against r in arbitrary units. A
particular value of the constant ‘energy’ E = âˆ'1 is also shown. The points marked
r1 and r2 are turning points, that is, points in which ˙r = 0. As the plot exhibits the
effective potential has only one minimum and thus just two turning points for any
E > Veff(rc). The plot also exhibits that Veff(r) attains its minimum value at rc and
that this is a stable minimum. The plot was made using A = 1, B = âˆ'3.5, C = 2 in
equation (15).
in the case the sphere is rotating around the cone axis [Lz 6= 0 and 0 < α < π/2] both
A and C are strictly positive constants.
Expression (13) can be regarded as the energy equation for an equivalent, purely
‘radial’ problem, with an effective potential energy term given by
Veff(r) = A
r
2
+
B
r
+ Cr, (15)
which we show in figure 2. In this figure we have also traced a constant E(=
âˆ'1, in arbitrary units) value as the horizontal line crossing Veff in two points, r1 and
r2â€"the turning points where Ë™r vanishes. This figure shows the typical behaviour of Veff.
A glance to figure 2 thus shows that the motion is restricted between the two turning
points, meaning that the sphere’s CM moves on a strip bounded by two parallel circles
on the conical surface.
The graph of Veff, figure 2, also shows a minimum value at rc. That is, an stable
circular orbit is possible at this distance rc. The actual radius of the circular orbit, as
measured from the cone’s symmetry axis, is ρc = rc sin α.
Moreover, equation (13) can be directly integrated to yield the general solution of
the problem as
t = ±
Z r
r1
dr′
q
2
M
[E âˆ' (
A
r
′2 +
B
r
′ + Cr′)]
, (16)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 7
where we have chosen the reference point as one of the turning points of the motion.
Taking into account that Ë™r = (dr/dt)Ï'Ë™
, we obtain, from equations (11) and (13), the
orbit equation as
Ï' = ±
1
sin2 α
√
2M
Z r
r1
Lzdr′
r
′2
q
E âˆ' (
A
r
′2 +
B
r
′ + Cr′
)
, (17)
where r1 corresponds to the first turning point and the double sign corresponds to the
clockwise and counterclockwise rotations, respectively. Equations (16) and (17) are the
general form of the solution of the problem in terms of quadratures. The integrals (17)
and (16) can be expressed in terms of elliptic integrals of the first and of the second
kind, but such expressions do not offer much insight into the properties of the motion.
However, a simple analysis of figure 2 says that the motion is always bounded between
r1 and r2, and that, for given E, h, and Lz, there can be only one circular orbit which
besides is stable. To determine the radius, rc, of this orbit we must take Ë™u = 0 â€"which
means that the acceleration, and thus the force, in the r-direction vanishesâ€" in (5) to
get
7Ï'Ë™2
c
rc sin2 α âˆ'
h
5g âˆ' 2aωcÏ'Ë™
c
i
cos α = 0, (18)
the suffix c meaning magnitudes evaluated on the parallel circle r = rc. Since the first
term in equation (18) is always positive and cos α > 0 because 0 < α < π/2, the circular
orbit is only possible when the initial conditions are such that
Ï'Ë™
cωc <
5g
2a
. (19)
Equation (18) is quite useful since it allows evaluating any one of the three quantities
rc, Ï'Ë™
c, or ωc as a function of initial conditions of the remaining two for starting the
motion on the circular orbit. If we know the initial values ω0 and Ï'Ë™
0, we could ascertain
whether equation (18) has a solution or not, just by checking if those initial values satisfy
equation (19). Clearly equation (19) holds if ω0 and Ï'Ë™
0 have contrary signs independent
of their magnitudes. Now equation (18) has one solution for ωc with initial conditions
r0 and Ï'Ë™
0 while it has two solutions with initial conditions r0 and ω0 one of opposite
sign to ω0 and another of the same sign, but satisfying equation (19).
Equation (18) in terms of the constants of motion Lz and h is
5 r
3
c M2
g sin2 α cos αâˆ'2 rc MLzh sin2 α cos αâˆ'7L
2
z

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

= 0.(20)
This is a cubic equation for rc that has always a real positive root; but let us pinpoint
that, due to condition (19), this equation is only valid when 2hLz < 5Mr2
c
g sin2 α. The
existence of only one real and positive root, follows from the fact that the last term in
(20) is less than zero, whereas the coefficient of the first term is positive [15]. However,
it can be much simpler to just take a look at figure 2, as it exhibits that there is one
and only one circular orbit on the surface.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 8
There is a further point worth mentioning, the existence of a relationship between
the radius of the circular orbit and the r-values of the turning points, ri
, i = 1, 2,
namely
r
3
c =
2r
2
1
r
2
2
r1 + r2
+
B
C

rc âˆ'
r1r2
r1 + r2

. (21)
This is the sort of property called universal in [6]; in fact, (21) is very easily shown to
reduce to equation (13) of reference [6] in the point particle limit (that is, when B = 0).
5. Analogy with an Non Homogeneous Harmonic Oscillator and the Orbit
on a Freelly Falling Cone.
Let us substitute equations (2) in the first of equations (5), to get
r¨ âˆ' rÏ•Ë™ =
2
7
Ï•Ë™
sin α
(aω) cosα âˆ'
5
7
g cos α, (22)
where Ï• ≡ Ï' sin α. Multiplying by M and using equations(7) and (8) in the right hand
side of equation (22), we get
M(¨r âˆ' rÏ•Ë™
2
) = f(r), (23)
where
f(r) ≡
B′
r
2
+
A′
r
3
âˆ'
5
7
Mg cos α, (24)
and
B
′ ≡
2
7
Lh cot α
A
′ ≡
2
7
L
2
cot2 α
M
L ≡ Mr2ϕ˙ =
Lz
sin α
;
(25)
therefore the equations of motion of the sphere are found, as we did in section 4,
analogous to the equations of motion of a particle in a central force field. The variables
r(t) and Ï•(t) can be considered as the polar coordinates of a particle moving on a plane
under the action of the “central” force f(r) given in equation (23). If, additionally we
assume the cone is in free fall, that is, that g = 0, then the orbit of the center of the
sphere, r = r(Ï•), can be easily obtained by rewriting equation (22) in terms of Ï•, using
the relations
d
dt
= ˙ϕ
d
dϕ =
L
Mr2
d
dϕ (26)
and
d
2
dt2
=
L
2
Mr2
d
dϕ 
1
r
2
d
dϕ
. (27)
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 9
Now, introducing Binet’s variable W ≡ 1/r, the equation of motion (23) becomes, with
g = 0 and using (26) and (27),
d
2W
dϕ2
+

1 +
2
7
cot2 α

W = âˆ'
2
7
Mh cot α
L
(28)
or, in terms of the angle in the polar plane, Ï' = Ï•/ sin α, and the vertical component of
the angular momentum, Lz,
d
2W
dÏ'2
+

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

W = âˆ'
2
7
Mh cos α sin2 α
Lz
. (29)
This is the well-known inhomogeneous differential equation for harmonic motion. If we
define Ω2 ≡ (1 âˆ' (5/7) cos2 α), the general solution can be written
W ≡
1
r
= A cos [Ω(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0)] âˆ'
2Mh sin2 α cos α
7LzΩ2
. (30)
The constants of integration A and Ï'0 can be determined by the initial conditions.
To clasify the solutions of the problem in free fall, we recognize two cases,
A) when h and Lz have different signs, i.e. hLz < 0; or
B) when h and Lz have the same sign, i.e., hLz > 0.
In any case, the general solution can be written in the form
W ≡
1
r
=
cos α
p
e cos [Ω(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) ± 1] (31)
with
p ≡
7|Lz|Ω
2
2M|h|sin2 α
(32)
or in the form
r(Ï') = rmin
e ± 1
e cos Ω(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) ± 1
(33)
with
rmin =
p
cos α(e ± 1), (34)
where e and Ï'0 are constants of integration. The sign in equation (34) is plus if hLz < 0
and minus if hLz > 0. Without loss of generality we can assume that e ≥ 0, since its
sign can be changed by substituting Ï' â†' Ï'+Ï€, that is, just by changing the orientation
of the coordinates.
The possible motions are best analysed case by case, as follows.
A) In the case that hLz > 0, we have the minus sign in equation (34) and therefore
e > 1. In this case there are two values of Ï' for which e cos Ω(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) = 1. When Ï'
approaches any of these two values r â†' ∞; therefore they define two asymptotes
and the orbit corresponds to a branch of an hyperbola.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 10
B) In the case that hLz < 0, the plus sign is in order in equation (34). We find now
four possibilities, e = 0, 0 < e < 1, e = 1 and e > 1. The motion in these cases is
as we describe in what follows.
B1. If e = 0, the orbit is the circle
r(Ï') = rc = p csc α

1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α

; (35)
this relation coincides with (20) if g = 0.
B2. If 0 < e < 1, the orbit is confined to the strip defined by the two parallel
circles on the cone, having radii
r = rmin (36)
and
r = rmax = rmin
1 + e
1 âˆ' e
. (37)
The CM of the sphere touches the circle with radius r = rmax when
Ï' âˆ' Ï'0 =
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
, (38)
which means that the apsidal angle ψ (the angle swept by the CM’s radius
vector in going from rmin to rmax) is
ψ =
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
> π, (39)
thus the apsides advance in each period of rotation. As the orbit is symmetric
with respect to the polar axis (r(âˆ'Ï') = r(Ï')), the angular displacement of the
apsides in each rotation of the center of the sphere around the z-axis is
∆ψ = 2Ï€[(1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2 âˆ' 1] (40)
and the angular velocity of precession of the apsides is
∆ψ
T
=
2Ï€
T
[(1âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2âˆ'1] = hÏ'Ë™i[(1âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)
âˆ'1/2âˆ'1](41)
where T is the period of rotation of the CM around the z axis, and
hÏ'Ë™i ≡ 1
T
Z T
0
Ï'dt Ë™ ≡
2Ï€
T
(42)
is the mean value of Ï'Ë™
.
Since (1 âˆ' 5 cos2 α/7)1/2
can be shown to be an irrational number for 0 < α <
Ï€/2, the orbit never repeats itself thus filling completely the strip that contains
the orbit as t â†' ∞. We may say that the orbit is ergodic on the strip, that is,
that eventually the orbit would densely fill all of the strip’s surface.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 11
B3. If e = 1, we can easily verify that r â†' ∞ as
Ï' â†' ±
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
+ Ï'0. (43)
Therefore, the orbit is a branch of an hyperbola with asymptotes defined by
Ï' = ±
Ï€
q
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α
+ Ï'0. (44)
B4. If e > 1, then there exist two values of Ï' for which
e cosr
1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α(Ï' âˆ' Ï'0) = âˆ'1, (45)
and therefore r â†' ∞ when Ï' approaches any of these values, which simply
define the asymptotes of the corresponding branch of the hyperbola.
The only thing that remains to be done is to obtain the value of e in terms of the
constants of motion. For this we have only to susbstitute the values of rmin and of p
into equation (13) (with C = 0) to get
e =
s
1 +
49(1 âˆ'
5
7
cos2 α)E
2Mh2 cos2 α
. (46)
Note that e depends only on E and h, and, furthermore, that 0 < e < 1, if E < 0; that
e = 1, if E = 0; and that e > 1, if E > 0. But, if hLz > 0 then B > 0 and therefore
E > 0, from which we have e > 1 always, consequently this case is equivalent to motion
in a repulsive force field.
6. Conclusions
We have studied the motion of a sphere rolling on the inner surface of a right circular cone
with opening angle α under the assumption that it does not slip. The motion was first
considered under the action of gravity and we managed to obtain an implicit solution in
quadratures. We established the existence of bounded motions and of circular orbits in
the system analysing an effective potential in which the equivalent single particle system
moves. With the help of this effective potential we were able to reduce the problem to
quadratures obtaining implicitly r(t) and thus θ(t).
However, to actually integrate the equations of motion for obtaining the centre’s
of mass orbit in terms of elementary functions, we required changing to a freely falling
frame. In such a frame we have been able to obtain solutions for the CM orbit analogous
to ones in a related central problem. We have been able to show, with the help of this
relation, that the CM can move on hyperbolic or on preceding elliptic, but never on
parabolic orbits.
The analogy between motions in our system with central-field motion and specially
with an inhomogeneous oscillator in the freely falling case, should be pointed out as
interesting and quite amusing. This aspect of the behaviour has a certain pedagogical
significance as can serve to emphasise that the same equations have always the same
solutions; it does not really matter that we are describing different physical systems.
Sphere rolling on the surface of a cone 12
Acknowledgments
ALSB has been partially supported by a PAPIIT-UNAM grant (108302), he expresses
his thaks to the Computational Science Research Center of SDSU and particularly
to Jose E Castillo and Ricardo Carretero-Gonz´alez for computational support. We
acknowledge with thanks the help of H. N. N´u˜nez-Y´epez. The cheerful collaboration of
A Simon and the late M Nick of Rolando California, and of H Kranken, P M Lobitta,
D Yoli, V Binny of the Monte Bello gang, is also gratefully acknowledged. This paper
is dedicated to the memory of our beloved friends P M Botitas, F C Sadi, M K Dochi,
and C Suri.
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WTF?
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 17, 01:44 AM 2018
Quote from: Canam on Jul 16, 10:58 PM 2018
WTF?

link:s://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0602160
Look at the pdf
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 17, 01:47 AM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 16, 10:27 PM 2018
Gravity will ensure the ball drops.  Duh!
Hey General, with my lousy English I shall teach you physics ?
Gravity is not enough to drop the ball, you need friction.

Steve,can sureley confirm.  O0
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 17, 04:36 AM 2018
If your balls are charged they will lose energie in the bend and everything falls down due to gravity  :lol:
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: junscissorhands on Jul 17, 06:22 AM 2018
If my balls are charged, I'd be banging.
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Jul 18, 08:10 PM 2018
Quote from: The General on Jul 16, 10:27 PM 2018
Gravity will ensure the ball drops.  Duh!
Hi General,
if Duh! is your last word you lost this battle here. 
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: Herby on Oct 01, 11:58 AM 2018
Quote from: Herby on Jul 18, 08:10 PM 2018
Hi General,
if Duh! is your last word you lost this battle here.

I'm asked if I am the "General".  :question:
No I'm not.
The post above could be a prove.

The General shows that he hasn't an idea of the role of friction in a simulation of a rolling sphere.  >:D
Title: Re: The Simulation Fallacy
Post by: The General on Oct 01, 12:55 PM 2018
Quote from: Herby on Oct 01, 11:58 AM 2018
I'm asked if I am the "General".  :question:
No I'm not.
The post above could be a prove.

The General shows that he hasn't an idea of the role of friction in a simulation of a rolling sphere.  >:D


Yes, I'm not sure as to why there could be any confusion.


-Herby