Can somebody explain my fallacy in simple words :
If " within 24 spins .i knew 110% (definate) that out of 12 numbers . 1 of them will hit. And i play each set of 24 spins having chosen 1 of these numbers. And flat betting
Then would i be ahead or still lose long term?
I don't understand if it's a question, math guess or anything else, but with those assumptions:
"within 24 spins .i knew 110% (definate) that out of 12 numbers . 1 of them will hit"
The question should be how you would know it? Assuming that you know, you gonna win 2 times, betting one number, out of 24 spins, then you gonna win, because you get back 72 units risking 22.
Sorry its kind of math and hypothetical...
In 24 spins any numbers can hit.
Lets say u wait until number has slept 100 spins then bet it 24 times thats a fallacy that its "due" i understand that.
So in this hypothetical situation in 24 spins u get a 'magic list of 12 numbers' 1 only must hit in 24 spins..
What is the most effective way to play the 12 over 24 spins (cause if u play 12 numbers with martingale or 1 hit re coups all it will be too expensive by spin 24 (even tho at spin 24 u will still win)
My other question is if u just picked 1 number from the 12 numbers will u be ahead long term... as u only have 1 number of a potential 12 and only 1 must hit .... (therefore could hit other 11 many times before u win)
In thr long term will u still end up ahead
Like this ...i give u 12 separate numbers and tell u that in every 24 spins 1 of them must hit. If u could pick just 1 for the whole 24 spins flat would u still be aheeven tho other 11 could hit also..
You will lose long term because the wheel has no memory of the previous 24 spins or anything else. The odds of your number hitting on the next spin is still 1/37 and the pay off is only 35:1.
I was doing it by his assumptions, if you are Sure, that out of 24 spins you will win, then YOU have the edge, also i said it at the beginning, the right question is HOW you know you will win? That's the question, also i am not good with all this kind of guess stuff, it depends on the interpretation of the problem too.
I cant grasp the 1 number question but in the example u could wait 12 spins and do 1 hit re coups all for 12 spins which would guarantee a win. Cus in the example one of the 12 must hit.... im just thinking if it still goes for 1 number ling term
Im just thinking that in the 24 spins for example say for 23 of the spins the other numbers hit (different to the 12) then final spin one of the 12 hit but its not the one u chose and that would have huge downswings i dunno if it would be better than betting a number at random
Unless it's pure math since, idk any strategy that could help you in this way..
in 24 spins 12 numbers will hit 5 to 10 times as a group itmight be good bet if you start beting hit numbers for 24 spins...once you got to 24 spins retrack
something like this
Maestro does that win long term
How are u betting
In your bet sometimes u bet 1 then after a few spins bet 2 or more. Why are u increasing numbers bet on
lol...looking for repeat within dozen...and no is not long therm winner...but is fun
It's the same as betting a number at random.
24 spins, 37 spins, waiting, triggers , sleepers, repeaters, all complete crap and useless for any advantage.
Exactly the same as betting randomly, whereupon you will lose to the house edge.
Yes indeed fix fox. But my question i wanted help with is hypothetical. It could even be a rng with 37 numbers but 1/12 must hit within 24 spins.
So like i said in this unique situation if u wait 12 then bet 12 with martingale u wud ensure win.
My actual question is the maths on the same situation but 1 number is bet .. so for example 23 spins could even hit the other number and miss the 12 but then hit your or another of the 12 on the last spin. But it must hit
Thanks for every1 help.
Same answer. Waiting or making hypothetical bets makes no difference to the odds. The maths is the same.
You can wait for 20 reds in a row and the probability of red (or black) is still 18/37 on the next spin. So waiting or hypothetical bets are totally useless to get an advantage with a martingale ;)
Of course ur right but not in a hypothetical question. Was only asking probability math
I'm answering from the point of view of probability in a hypothetical situation.